Certainly an interesting take on biblical homosexuality mores, but I can't help but think the author is shouting his case case over numerous babbling voices that contradict him.
Nowhere does the Bible actually oppose homosexuality.Daniel A. Helminiak makes a good case for the misinterpretation of a couple of modern day translations of ancient texts to defend his case, but gives no real detail - or dare I say context - for why this is the case.
In this passage Paul is referring to the ancient Jewish Law: Leviticus 18:22, the “abomination” of a man’s lying with another man. Paul sees male-male sex as an impurity, a taboo, uncleanness — in other words, “abomination.” Introducing this discussion in 1:24, he says so outright: "God gave them up … to impurity."Paul may say what he likes, but I shouldn't imagine that taking what God has proscribed as an abomination, and watering it down to 'uncleanliness', I think somewhat misses the point.
Unless the New Covenant relinquishes gentiles from the responsibilities of such 'abominations' in thought, what does it mean to say that the action is good with God? And if - as Jesus allegedly said - it is the purity of the heart that matters, one is committing a mortal sin just thinking about it, rendering the whole biblical argument that homosexuality in Christianity is not an issue wholly redundant.
In focusing on that which he can refute - at least superficially - he is not even looking at the other targets that need be approached. Sharp shooter fallacy? I suspect so, but haven't the time to approach it yet.
Wouldn't it be nice if he turned out to be right? Although, I am not holding my breath.
Your thoughts?
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